Question

If `p/q` is a rational number and m is a non-zero integer, then `(p xx m)/(q xx m)` is a rational number not equivalent to `p/q`.

Options

• True

• False

Answer 1

This statement is False.

Explanation:

Let m = 1, 2, 3, ...

When m = 1, then `(p xx m)/(q xx m) = (p xx 1)/(q xx 1) = p/q`

When m = 2, then `(p xx m)/(q xx m) = (p xx 2)/(q xx 2) = p/q`

For any non-zero value of m, `(p xx m)/(q xx m)` is always equivalent to `p/q`.