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Question
If the mean and variance of a binomial variate X are 14 and 10 respectively, then the probability that X takes a value greater than or equal to 1 is ______
Options
`(2^47 - 1)/(2^47)`
`1/2^49`
`1/2^47`
`(2^49 - 1)/(2^49)`
MCQ
Fill in the Blanks
Solution
If the mean and variance of a binomial variate X are 14 and 10 respectively, then the probability that X takes a value greater than or equal to 1 is `underline((2^49 - 1)/(2^49))`.
Explanation:
We have, mean = np = 14
and variance = npq = 10
∴ `(npq)/(np) = q = 10/14 = 5/7`
∴ p = `2/7` and n = 49
∴ P(X ≥ 1) = 1 - P(X = 0)
= `1 - ""^49"C"_0(1/2)^49`
= `(2^49 - 1)/(2^49)`
shaalaa.com
Variance of Binomial Distribution (P.M.F.)
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