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Let f : R → R be given by f(x) = tan x. Then f-1(1) is ____________. -

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Question

Let f : R → R be given by f(x) = tan x. Then f-1(1) is ____________.

Options

  • `pi/4`

  • `{"n" pi + pi/4 ; "n" in "Z"}`

  • Does not exist

  • None of these

MCQ
Fill in the Blanks

Solution

Let f : R → R be given by f(x) = tan x. Then f-1(1) is `underline({"n" pi + pi/4 ; "n" in "Z"})`.

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Inverse of a Function
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