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Question
The multiplicative inverse of (– 4)–2 is (4)–2.
Options
True
False
Solution
This statement is False.
Explanation:
a is called the multiplicative inverse of b, if a × b = 1.
Put b = (– 4)–2
∴ a × (– 4)–2 = 1
∴ `a = 1/((-4)^-2) = (-4)^2` ...`[∵ a^-m = 1/a^m]`
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