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Question
Using derivative, prove that: tan –1x + cot–1x = `pi/(2)`
Solution
Let f(x) = tan –1x + cot –1x ...(1)
Differentiating w.r.t. x, we get
f'(x) = `"d"/"dx"(tan^-1 x + cot^-1 x)`
= `"d"/"dx"(tan^-1 x) + "d"/"dx"(cot^-1 x)`
= `(1)/(1 + x^2) - (1)/(1 + x^2)`
= 0
Since f'(x) = 0, f(x) is a constant function.
Let f(x) = k.
For any value of x, f(x) = k
Let x = 0.
Then f(0) = k ...(2)
From (1), f(0) = tan–1(0) + cot–1(0)
= `0 + pi/(2) = pi/(2)`
∴ k = `pi/(2)` ...[By (2)]
∴ f(x) = k = `pi/(2)`
Hence, tan–1x + cot–1x = `pi/(2)`. ...[By (1)]
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