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Question
Examine if Rolle’s Theorem is applicable to any of the following functions. Can you say some thing about the converse of Rolle’s Theorem from these examples?
f (x) = x2 – 1 for x ∈ [1, 2]
Solution
By Rolle’s Theorem, for a function f: [a, b] → R, if
(a) f is continuous on [a, b]
(b) f is differentiable on (a, b)
(c) f (a) = f (b)
then, there exists some c ∈ (a, b) such that f'(c) = 0
Therefore, Rolle’s Theorem is not applicable to those functions that do not satisfy any of the three conditions of the hypothesis.
f (x) = x2 – 1 for x ∈ [1, 2]
It is evident that f, being a polynomial function, is continuous in [1, 2] and is differentiable in (1, 2).
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