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Question
Let f(x) = x, \[g\left( x \right) = \frac{1}{x}\] and h(x) = f(x) g(x). Then, h(x) = 1
Options
(a) x ∈ R
(b) x ∈ Q
(c) x ∈ R − Q
(d) x ∈ R, x ≠ 0
Solution
(d) x ∈ R, x ≠ 0
f(x) = x, \[g\left( x \right) = \frac{1}{x}\] and h(x) = f(x) g(x) Now,
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